for those that would judge others

‘But Jesus bent down and started to write on the ground with his finger. When they kept on questioning him, he straightened up and said to them, "if any of you is without sin, let him be the first to throw a stone at her." Again he stooped down and wrote on the ground. [9] At this, those who heard began to go away one at a time, the older ones first, until only Jesus was left, with the woman still standing there. [10] Jesus straightened up and asked her, "Woman, where are they? Has no one condemned you?" [11] "No one, sir,' she said. "Then neither do I condemn you," Jesus declared. "Go now and leave your life of sin."’ (John 7:53-8:11)

[Italics added]



"Do not judge, or you too will be judged. [2] For in the same way you judge others, you will be judged, and with the measure you use, it will be measured to you." (Matthew 7: 1-2)

[Italics added]



I think the relevance of these two teachings is that they show us that we are not fit to judge as well as that we should not judge (not that we can judge if are measures are correct: we are unfit to have perfect measures): Matthew is a caution of about if we judge (there is no technical loop hole of judging because of us having correct measures--we do not have correct measures as we are not perfect. If Jesus would not condemn a sinner, then what makes us fit to do so: nothing?

I think it is also important to realize that only those that are not perfect are capable of sin; however, this does not mean that if someone is not perfect he/she will automatically sin. It does mean that only those whom are perfect should pass judgment. This is shown in Luke 18, 18-19 ‘[18]A certain ruler asked him, “Good teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?” [19]”Why do you call me good?” Jesus answered. “No one is good—except God alone…”’ However, is there a difference between Luke and Matthew 19, 16-17, ‘‘‘[16] Now a man came up to Jesus and asked, “Teacher what good thing must I do to get eternal life?” “[17] Why do you ask me about what is good?” Jesus replied. “There is only One who is good…”’ I think it is clear based on the pervious on goings that it is the same situation that both are writing about: why is it a ‘man’ in Matthew and a ‘ruler’ in Luke and why is it ‘Good Teacher’ in Luke and ‘good thing’ in Matthew? Is it because of how they were translated? Did the disciples did not hear Jesus all the same way (i.e., they were paraphrasing)? Was it the editing effects of those that compiled the writings in the Bible?

I think that in Matthew 20, 20 when the ‘young man’ replied ‘ “[20]All these I have kept.”…”What do I still lack?” to Jesus statement of obeying the commandments ‘[21]Jesus answered, “If you want to be perfect, go, sell your possessions and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me.”[22]When the young man heard this, he went away sad, because he had great wealth.”’ I think this conversion brings-up several important points (1) we are not perfect, (2) we have options (and Jesus gives these to us), and (3) Jesus does not expect us to do everything by ourselves:‘[23]Then Jesus said to his disciples, “I tell you the truth, it is hard for a rich man to enter the kingdom of heaven. [24]Again I tell you, it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich man to enter the kingdom of God.” [25] When the disciples heard this, they were greatly astonished and asked, “Who then can be saved?” [26] Jesus looked at them and said, “With man this is impossible, but with God all things are possible.’”

[Italics added]


my new blog: http://neweraofchristianity.blogspot.com/